"Black people commit a disproportionate amount of violent crime" - What is this meant to serve as proof of?

More detail: When looking at crime statistics, it is a fact that black people are convicted of violent crime at a disproportionate rate compared to the percent of the population that is black.

If you yourself have brought this up in the context of a political conversation, or you know someone who has...why? Like I'm actually asking why. What conclusion or point is this evidence meant to serve as proof of? Or to put it another way, yes I agree with you on this fact...now what?

Are you proposing legislation? Is it just an FYI? Is there some action you want people to take?

Of note, following the same logic and using the same crime data, it is also a fact that white men disproportionately are convicted of possessing child pornography. Is this also significant? If you or someone you know has mentioned the former but not the latter; Why? Shouldn't both be significant rather than just one being significant?

Overall "hidden point" of the question (in the spirit of good faith discussion): I typically look to conservatives in support of my personal principle of treating everyone as an individual regardless of their immutable characteristics. But, the people who bring up this crime statistic self-identity as conservative; So I'm conflicted. I'm hoping you in this sub can offer some perspective.